You can get a copy of this ruling at the following link:
http://pep.rocks/MND_14_4737_037_Order.pdfI think that if you read the order, you'll get a very different picture of what happened from what the OP described.
Specifically, the following statement is false:
c. staley wrote:
In short, portions of the suit that dealt with the Lanham Act and presenting a trademark "in commerce through sales and distribution" (sec. 32) were dismissed. The court apparently agreed that the defendant was not engaging in any kind of deceptive practice relating to the "sales of products and services."
(Perhaps he misread the order.)
In actuality, the court determined that the complaint did not plausibly allege that the defendant had used the trademark in connection with the sale of any
goods, but did plausibly allege that the defendant had used the trademark in connection with the sale of
services. The court determined that we had not stated a claim for counterfeiting, and dismissed that part of the claim without prejudice (meaning it can be re-filed if we can allege sufficient facts to state a claim). The court also allowed the state-law claims to stand.